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Latest 300-320 exam questions and answers (16Q&As)

QUESTION 85
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3.)
A. Usedejitter buffers
B. Increase bandwidth
C. Fragment data packets
D. Prioritize voice packets Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 86
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3.)
A. Data link
B. IP
C. UDP
D. RTP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
B. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384-32,767 to transport voice payloads
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow
D. RTCP caches an RTP packet’s Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 88
Which two of the following VoIP gateway platforms are considered to be Integrated Services Routers (ISRs)? (Choose 2.)
A. Cisco 2600XM Series
B. Cisco 2800 Series
C. Cisco 3700 Series
D. Cisco 3800 Series Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 89
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, what is the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster?
A. 2500
B. 7500
C. 10,000
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 90
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to provide basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. AAR
B. SRST
C. CAC D. V3PN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 91
Which option cannot be configured using Cisco Configuration Assistant?
A. voice VLAN only
B. voice and data VLANs
C. script selection for theAutoAttendant
D. SIP trunk to an ITSP Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 92
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models?
A. Single site
B. Multisite with centralized call processing
C. Clustering over the IP WAN
D. Multisite with distributed call processing Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 93
Identify two gateway supplementary services. (Choose 2.)
A. Hold
B. DTMF relay
C. Transfer
D. Transcoding b Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 94
According to the G.114 recommendation, the maximum one-way delay for voice should ideally not exceed how much delay?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 95
did not have question?!?!?!?!
A. national destination code
B. station code
C. country code
D. subscriber number
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 96
Identify the preferred voice quality measurement approach for VoIP networks.
A. MOS
B. PESQ
C. QRT
D. PSQM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 97
Which method of fax relay uses a store-and-forward approach?
A. T.30
B. T.37
C. T.38
D. Cisco Fax Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 98
What codec is required for fax pass-through and/or modem pass-through?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. G.729ab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 99
Identify three quality issues that can result because of a lack of network bandwidth. (Choose 3.)
A. Jitter
B. Impedance
C. Delay
D. Packet loss Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 100
What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D

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Latest most accurate 210-060 dumps pdf questions and answers (17Q&As)

QUESTION 24
What must a system administrator do to reconcile BlackBerry devices with email messages that have been permanently deleted from Microsoft Outlook? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server properties.
B. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Domain properties.
C. Create a new group, add BlackBerry device users to the group, and enable the hard delete option for the group.
D. Change the IT policy for the hard delete option and apply the IT policy to the all users.
E. Use the BlackBerry Resource Kit to apply the hard delete option to all users. 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A custom application has been developed for a group of BlackBerry device users. The organizations management staff require that all users in the group have the custom application installed on their BlackBerry devices. Which method can the system administrator use to prevent the custom application from being uninstalled by users? (Choose one.)
A. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Required.
B. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Optional.
C. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Disallowed.
D. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, an allow list or white list for third-party application control is created.
E. The custom application is signed by Research In Motion Limited so that the application is part of the system software. 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which type of confirmation does the Message Receipt Confirmation tool in the BlackBerry Resource Kit monitor? (Choose one.)
A. Email messages to a BlackBerry device
B. PIN messages to a BlackBerry device
C. SMS messages to a BlackBerry device
D. Unread status for email messages sent to a BlackBerry device
E. Message receipts for all email messages sent to a BlackBerry device 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two delivery methods are available to push applications to a BlackBerry device using a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless
B. Wireline only
C. Wi-Fi
D. BlackBerry device user initiated download
E. BlackBerry MDS Push Server 210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A company does not want their BlackBerry device users to be able to send PIN messages outside of their company. Which option in the BlackBerry Manager can be used to prevent PIN message communication outside of the company? (Choose one.)
A. Enable Enterprise Service Policy
B. Update Peer-to-Peer Encryption Key
C. Import IT Policy Definitions
D. Disable the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service
E. Disable message redirection 210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
The database administrator for the BlackBerry Configuration Database has advised the system administrator that the Microsoft SQL Server was shut down for maintenance the previous night for approximately two hours. In the application log, from which three BlackBerry Enterprise Server components would the system administrator expect to see warnings when the connection to the Microsoft SQL Server was lost? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Router
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Controller
E. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 31
A BlackBerry device is activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, allowing the BlackBerry device user to send and receive email messages and wirelessly update organizer (PIM) data synchronization control. The user wants to synchronize the address book on the BlackBerry device with a new contact that has recently been created in a personal .pst folder file. What must be done before the user can successfully synchronize the BlackBerry device and the new address book? (Choose one.)
A. The new address book must be assigned to the user in the BlackBerry Manager.
B. The user can synchronize the BlackBerry device to a .pst file in the BlackBerry Manager.
C. Wireless synchronization for the address book must be disabled on the BlackBerry device, and then, the BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. The user must disable the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book feature must be selected for synchronization in the BlackBerry Manager.
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book must be selected for synchronization. 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
What can be configured for the BlackBerry Controller Service in the Microsoft Windows Registry? (Choose one.)
A. Daily restart of the BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. The number of hung threads
C. The wait count of hung threads
D. Maximum number of BlackBerry Messaging Agents
E. BlackBerry Controller Service enabled 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
How many remote components from a BlackBerry Enterprise Server installation can be installed on the same computer? (Choose one.)
210-060 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When planning for disaster recovery, what are the two minimum version requirements to support replication of the BlackBerry Configuration Database? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.0 Service Pack 4
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 2
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Service Pack 4 or later 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 35
A system administrator is installing the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server in an environment. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server will be installed on a member server that does not have a Microsoft Exchange Server and the BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account will be named BESAdmin. Which two tasks must be performed in the Microsoft Exchange Server environment prior to installing the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the server on which the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software will be installed has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
B. Verify that the Microsoft Exchange Server that the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will connect to has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
C. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Send As, and Receive As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
D. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
E. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write Properties, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server. 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 36
Given the following example of a BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file: Which logging level has been set for this BlackBerry Enterprise Server component? (Choose one.)
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
The following line appears in the BlackBerry Dispatcher logs from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server:
[30222] (06/12 23:59:39):{0xFE4} {Smith, Donna} MTH: contentType=IPPP, sizeOTA=1228, sizeOTW=2096, TransactionId=201199664, Tag=9979374
Which action is being performed? (Choose one.)
A. An Internet request packet is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
B. An Internet request packet is being received from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. An email message is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. An email message is being received from the BlackBerry device through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
E. An attachment request packet is being sent from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A system administrator has moved the BlackBerry Configuration Database from one Microsof SQL Server to another. The Microsoft SQL database was backed up from the source server and restored on the destination server. The system administrator restores the BlackBerry Configuration Database on the destination Microsoft SQL Server and configures the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to point to the new Microsoft SQL Server using the BlackBerry Config tool. The BlackBerry Dispatcher, the BlackBerry Synchronization Service, and the BlackBerry Policy Service all fail to start. The system administrator has verified connectivity to the destination Microsoft SQL Server by clicking the Test Microsoft SQL Server Connectivity button. What is the most likely cause of this problem? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account is not a member of the local administrators group on the Microsoft SQL Server.
B. The BlackBerry Configuration Database schema is not updated.
C. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account does not have sufficient Microsoft Exchange permissions.
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is pointed at the wrong database.
E. The BlackBerry system errors (syserrors) are not updated in the master database.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 39
At what level in the BlackBerry Manager are IT policies created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. User
C. Group
D. Domain
E. Device 210-060 exam Correct Answer: QUESTION 40
A system administrator wants to create a software configuration that prohibits installation of all third-party applications with the exception of a short list of approved applications. Which two options require the shortest steps to achieve the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
B. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
C. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
D. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
E. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted. 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: AC

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Latest 1Z0-062 pdf questions and answers (15Q&As)

QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
1Z0-062 exam Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
1Z0-062 exam Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
1Z0-062 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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Latest 300-115 pdf study guide questions and answers (12Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-115 PDF Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 300-135  dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is a valid technique for preventing unauthorized users from triggering a process flow?
A. lock down all process flows using transport specific security mechanisms
B. lock down the Starter activity at the transport level via transport specific security
C. supply a User ID and password when logging into a BusinessWorks Process Engine
D. prevent each BusinessWorks process flow from unauthorized access by assigning a role to it
300-115 pdf Answer: B

Question: 6
Your organization has created a standard for organizing TIBCO BusinessWorks projects. Which
is most suited to this task?
A. TIBCO Adapters
B. TIBCO PortalBuilder
C. TIBCO Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Designer templates
Answer: D

Question: 7
Which two messaging protocols can be used to communicate between a BusinessWorks process
and a TIBCO Adapter? (Choose two.)
A. SOAP
B. RosettaNet
C. Rendezvous
D. Message Queues
E. Java Message Service
300-115 pdf Answer: C, E

Question: 8
Which statement is true about JRE requirements for installing TIBCO BusinessWorks
components?
A. A JRE must be installed prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
B. No JRE is needed or used during the installation of TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
C. All installed JREs must be uninstalled prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
D. All TIBCO BusinessWorks component installers can use a preinstalled JRE or its own
embedded JVM.
Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
300-115 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 12
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E

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Latest 70-486 practice exam questions and answers (9Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
70-532 dumps 7Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
You need to configure navigation for the site. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
A server in the SharePoint farm experiences high memory usage. Task Scheduler on the server runs a Windows PowerShell script to perform backups of Wholesale sites. You need to resolve any memory leak issues in the Windows PowerShell script. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the code segment at line EW04:
Start-SPAssignment -Global
B. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
$site.Close()
C. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment -SemiGlobal
D. Insert the code segment at line EW17:
Stop-SPAssignment Global
70-532 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Start-SPAssignment Global initiates a new assignment store.
* Stop-SPAssignment .Disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. The Stop SPAssignmentcmdlet disposes of objects in the provided assignment collection. Use the Global parameter to dispose of all objects in the global assignment collector and to stop the global store from collecting additional objects. Provide a SemiGlobal assignment collector to dispose of all contained objects.
From scenario:
* Performance Optimization and Memory Usage SPSite objects must be removed from memory immediately after the objects go out of scope.

QUESTION 4
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available. You need to deploy the hotfix. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
70-532 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded: / Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version. / Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.

QUESTION 5
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages. What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You need to set the appropriate permission levels. A variable named customRole references Wholesale. Which code segment should you add at line UA09?
A. customRole.BasePermissions= _permissions | SPBasePermissions.ViewFormPages;
B. customRole .BasePermissions= _permissions| SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
C. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.EmptyMaskSPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
D. customRole.BasePermissions=SPBasePermissions.ViewPages;
70-532 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Lila has created a display campaign to help support her consulting business. The ad has been running for six months. Her goal of the campaign is to get people to sign up for her newsletter. If Lila has a desire to get more conversions at a lower cost, which Google AdWords tool should she use?
A. My Change History tool
B. Conversion optimizer
C. Display ad builder
D. Keyword tools
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Hal is considering a YouTube masthead for an ad campaign. There are several requirements on size and sound limits for YouTube masthead advertisements, such as the 50KB load size and the 1MB load for animation and autoplay. What is the maximum size for videos (.flv) file size for when a user clicks the masthead to see the video ad?
A. 10MB
B. 1MB
C. 100MB
D. 50MB
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Tom is reviewing his YouTube ad performance through the Google AdWords reporting feature. He would like to review the number of users who clicked his ad and converted to a sale on his Website. What requirement must Tom have satisfied to see the conversion reporting feature for YouTube ads?
A. He must have added the Google AdWords Conversion Tracking code to his Website page.
B. His YouTube ads must be placed through a YouTube reservations agent.
C. His ads must be prepaid.
D. He must have uploaded a promoted video on YouTube.
Correct Answer: A


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QUESTION 37
Which technology supports tunnel interfaces while remaining compatible with legacy VPN implementations?
A. FlexVPN
B. DMVPN
C. GET VPN
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
You are troubleshooting a site-to-site VPN issue where the tunnel is not establishing. After issuing the debug crypto ipsec command on the headend router, you
see the following output.
What does this output suggest?
1d00h: IPSec (validate_proposal): transform proposal
(port 3, trans 2, hmac_alg 2) not supported
1d00h: ISAKMP (0:2) : atts not acceptable. Next payload is 0
1d00h: ISAKMP (0:2) SA not acceptable
A. Phase 1 policy does not match on both sides.
B. The Phase 2 transform set does not match on both sides.
C. ISAKMP is not enabled on the remote peer.
D. The crypto map is not applied on the remote peer.
E. The Phase 1 transform set does not match on both sides.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?
A. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; Logging andgt; E-Mail Setup
B. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; E-Mail Setup andgt; Logging Enable
C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. SHA-256
D. SHA-384
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the
ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?
A. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel
policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel
policy tunnelall split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C. group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split-tunnel network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel
network-list splitlist
E. crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 43
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?
A. disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B. disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C. flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D. nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of
device.
F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE
configuration is copied automatically.
G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
Correct Answer: CEG

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
A new NOC engineer, while viewing a real-time log from an SSL VPN tunnel, has a question a line in the log.
The IP address 172.26.26.30 is attached to which interface in the network?
A. the Cisco ASA physical interface
B. the physical interface of the end user
C. the Cisco ASA SSL VPN tunnel interface
D. the SSL VPN tunnel interface of the end user
Correct Answer: B

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