UCS Director and Cisco Intersight – Better Together

Cisco continues to invest and enhance our data center automation and private cloud infrastructure as a service (IaaS) platform, Cisco UCS Director. At the same time, we are leveraging the Cisco Intersight platform to deliver additional value and operational benefits when coupled with UCS Director.

Guest Blogger: Sri Hary Vengadasubbu, Cisco Intersight Product Management

Executing on Our Strategy

We introduced Cisco Intersight software as a service (SaaS) systems management platform that unifies the Cisco UCS rack and blade servers and HyperFlex hyperconverged infrastructure for our customers. In a series of blogs, the product management team has explained our strategy for helping our customers transition from Cisco UCS Director to Cisco Intersight. Here’s the list of blogs from the series:

UCS Director – A Strategic IaaS Evolution
UCS Director – Simplify Infrastructure Automation Anywhere
Cisco Intersight and UCS Director: Executing on Our Strategy

Investment Protection

Cisco is committed to delivering private cloud IaaS automation offered by UCS Director and in protecting our customers investments. A new Intersight Advantage edition to be announced shortly will include UCS Director, in addition to other capabilities, and it will extend customer’s investment protection as they transition to Cisco Intersight. Over time, the combination of UCS Director and Intersight will simplify day to day operations and extend private cloud IaaS services.

Bringing SaaS Benefits to UCS Director: Hybrid SaaS

One of the advantages of the Cisco Intersight SaaS platform is that customers get the benefits of continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD). This means they can realize the advantages of new, enhanced capabilities as they are made available every couple of weeks without creating additional work for operations teams. Customers using on-prem enterprise software like UCS Director traditionally go through a delayed patch and upgrade process. As a result, they do not realize the benefits of new capabilities for 3-6 months, or even longer, after a product release, due to delays in operational processes.

Starting with latest Cisco UCS Director 6.7 release, customers can now get SaaS and CI/CD benefits by simply “claiming” their UCS Director on-prem installation from the Cisco Intersight SaaS platform. This claim process enables a secure hybrid SaaS setup by associating the Intersight SaaS platform and your on-prem deployed UCS Director software, to deliver on-going new capabilities and benefits.

Better Together
As we continue to enhance Cisco Intersight and UCS Director functionality, this hybrid SaaS model provides significant better together benefits for our customers. The “symbiotic” relationship between Cisco Intersight and UCS Director 6.7 today delivers following benefits:

Automated UCS Director patch/upgrade image delivery that allows customers to control their upgrades within operational processes and maintenance schedules
Enhanced Customer eXperience (CX) where in Intersight SaaS enables Cisco TAC to streamline diagnostics log collection and expedited issue resolution for customer on premise installed UCS Director software
Cisco expects to deliver more “better together” benefits and functionality down the road, as we simplify data center automation and private cloud IaaS experience. This will enable a smooth journey for UCS Director customers, as they leverage Cisco Intersight SaaS for better together benefits. These benefits are delivered with the great attention to ensuring security that Cisco offers for all our SaaS platforms. This video provides more details.

What’s New?
Cisco continues to deliver on our strategy with the latest release of Cisco UCS Director, version 6.7. This release is another step in the private cloud IaaS evolution we described in this blog nine months ago. In this video we explain how to use Cisco Intersight SaaS platform to automate UCS Director update and patch image delivery.

The latest UCS Director 6.7 release includes an optimized multi-node architecture large scale Data Center automation and Private Cloud IaaS, strengthens security hardening across entire software stack, data base and enables Self-signed Certificate use. There are further enhancements to orchestration and automation functionality to allow cloning tasks, configurable loop task parameters, and full read access to orchestration tasks for the end-user portal.

UCS Director 6.7 also supports for the following:

Automation Task Library for UCS firmware updates
Cisco ACI 4.0, ACI Multi-Site Controller, Policy Based Routing (PBR) associated tasks/workflows, and more
Red Hat Enterprise KVM guest customization
VMware 6.7 vCenter certification

Cisco 3650 Switch Cannot Enter The System

If Cisco 3650 switch cannot enter the system and the system will restart automatically and repeatedly, and it finally will stay in the  
switch -- the interface. For example, Switch: boot flash:cat3k_caa-universalk9.SPA.03.06.03.E.152-2.E3.bin.
And it cannot be restarted IOS by manual operation. How to solve this problem?

Exhibit:
Booting…Initializing RAM +++++++@@@@@@@@…++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Base ethernet MAC Address: 84:b8:02:12:8e:00
Interface GE 0 link down***ERROR: PHY link is down
Initializing Flash…
flashfs[7]: 0 files, 1 directories
flashfs[7]: 0 orphaned files, 0 orphaned directories
flashfs[7]: Total bytes: 6784000
flashfs[7]: Bytes used: 1024
flashfs[7]: Bytes available: 6782976
flashfs[7]: flashfs fsck took 1 seconds….done Initializing Flash.
Reading full image into memory………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….done
Nova Bundle Image
Kernel Address : 0x6042d274
Kernel Size : 0x418331/4293425
Initramfs Address : 0x608455a8
Initramfs Size : 0xe780c1/15171777
Compression Format: .mzip
Bootable image at @ ram:0x6042d274
Bootable image segment 0 address range [0x81100000, 0x82140000] is in range [0x80180000, 0x90000000].
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
File "flash:cat3k_caa-universalk9.SPA.03.06.03.E.152-2.E3.bin" uncompressed and installed, entry point: 0x8166a500
Loading Linux kernel with entry point 0x8166a500 …
Bootloader: Done loading app on core_mask: 0xf
Launching Linux Kernel (flags = 0x5)
All packages are Digitally Signed
Starting System Services
FIPS(NGWC): Flash Key Check : Begin
FIPS(NGWC): Flash Key Check : End, Not Found, FIPS Mode Not Enabled
Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: found 1 microcode images for 1 device.
Image for front-end 0: /tmp/microcode_update/front_end/fe_type_8_1
Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: Preparing to program device microcode…
Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: Preparing to program device[0]…83584 bytes.
Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: Programming device 0…
% Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: address 0, Could not enable sys_poll
% Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: unable to program device: 0
% Front-end Microcode IMG MGR: malformed microcode cache
Mar 15 04:37:15 %PLATFORM_MGR-1-PLATMGR_INIT_FAIL: Platform ManaMar 15 04:37:15 %STACKMGR-1-RELOAD: Reloading due to reason
Mar 15 04:37:15 %IOSXE-2-PLATFORM: process ng_dumper: Process platform_mgr: terminated abnormally.
Mar 15 04:37:16 %IOSXE-2-PLATFORM: process platform_mgr: ===================== Exception Data ====================
Mar 15 04:37:16 %IOSXE-2-PLATFORM: process platform_mgr: Exception in 'platform_mgr' with Signal=SIGABRT(6)
Mar 15 04:37:16 %IOSXE-2-PLATFORM: process platform_mgr: Frame Pointer=0x7F9D0990, Program Counter=0x2C0673B0
Mar 15 04:37:16 %IOSXE-2-PLATFORM: process platform_mgr: Thread ID=5656: -Traceback= 1#20db66b598bc323d48a7165b61f3c899 pthread:2C055000+123B0
Mar 15 04:37:16 %IOSXE-2-PLATFORM: process platform_mgr:
Message from sysmgr: Reason Code:[2] Reset Reason:Service [platform_mgr] pid:[5656] terminated abnormally [6].
Details:
Service: platform_mgr
Description: 3K Platform Manager
Executable: /tmp/sw/mount/cat3k_caa-platform.SPA.03.06.03E.pkg//usr/binos/bin/platform_mgr
Started at Wed Mar 15 04:36:16 2017 (831031 us)
Stopped at Wed Mar 15 04:37:15 2017 (761184 us)
Uptime: 59 seconds
Start type: SRV_OPTION_RESTART_STATELESS (23)
Death reason: SYSMGR_DEATH_REASON_FAILURE_SIGNAL (2)
Last heartbeat 0.00 secs ago
PID: 5656
Exit code: signal 6
CWD: /var/sysmgr/work
PID: 5656
UUID: 3008
Switch rebooted continously for atleast 5 times. Disabling autoreboot
Unmounting ng3k filesystems…
Warning! - some ng3k filesystems may not have unmounted cleanly…
Please stand by while rebooting the system…
Restarting system.
Booting…Initializing RAM +++++++@@@@@@@@…++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Base ethernet MAC Address: 84:b8:02:12:8e:00
Interface GE 0 link down***ERROR: PHY link is down
Initializing Flash…
flashfs[7]: 0 files, 1 directories
flashfs[7]: 0 orphaned files, 0 orphaned directories
flashfs[7]: Total bytes: 6784000
flashfs[7]: Bytes used: 1024
flashfs[7]: Bytes available: 6782976
flashfs[7]: flashfs fsck took 1 seconds….done Initializing Flash.
The system is not configured to boot automatically. The
following command will finish loading the operating system
software:
boot
switch:

Answered 1:I think you need to re-upload an IOS and try it.
Replied:But it can't enter the system and how to upload IOS? And the capacity of 3650 IOS is very big, it takes 40 minutes to use TFTP. Any other better way?
Answered 2: IOS bug
Cisco Bug: CSCva30394
Answered 3 : BOOT=flash:packages.conf. It will help you deal with this problem.
lhttp://www.bestexampass.com/400-101.html

The Problem Of Cisco 3845 Exit Router

Question: Cisco 3845 is used as exit router. What is the problem with the configuration below? The Local Area Network can not be found.

Current configuration : 1111 bytes
!
! Last configuration change at 06:35:58 UTC Tue Dec 26 2017
!
version 15.0
service timestamps debug datetime msec
service timestamps log datetime msec
no service password-encryption
!
hostname Router
!
boot-start-marker
boot-end-marker
!
!
no aaa new-model
!
dot11 syslog
ip source-route
!
!
ip cef
!
!
no ipv6 cef
multilink bundle-name authenticated
!
!
!
!
voice-card 0
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
license udi pid CISCO3845-MB-C/K9 sn FOC16053MU6
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip address 2...26 255.255.255.248 ip nat outside ip virtual-reassembly duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.20.253 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ip virtual-reassembly duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 ! ip forward-protocol nd ! ! no ip http server no ip http secure-server ip nat pool wan-pool 2...26 2...26 netmask 255.255.255.248 ip nat inside source list 1 pool wan-pool overload ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 2...25
!
!
!
!
control-plane
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
line con 0
line aux 0
line vty 0 4
login
!
scheduler allocate 20000 1000
end

Answer:
1. It can ping 2**.**.***.25 in the router, but PC (192.168.20.*) can not ping 2**.**.***.25.
2. You didn’t write down the list 1.
3. You didn’t write down the interface or IP address in this command(ip nat inside source list 1 pool wan-pool overload)

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Telepresence Interoperability Protocol for Developers

Cisco is committed to interoperability between Cisco TelePresence products and competitive multiscreen video communications devices. Cisco TelePresence interoperability initiatives as well as recent milestones include:

1.Leading industry standards development organizations efforts to develop specifications. A future suite of specifications will make up the multi-stream, telepresence standard for interoperability.

2.Opened up Telepresence Interoperability Protocol (TIP). Cisco has opened up and transferred its Telepresence Interoperability Protocol (TIP) to the International Multimedia Telecommunications Consortium (IMTC) to license royalty-free to anyone. Those wanting a multi-stream interoperability option with Cisco now can implement TIP as well as participate in its ongoing stewardship as a member of IMTC.

3.Launched a TIP Library Open Source project. To help speed your implementation of TIP, Cisco has also launched a TIP Library open source project. This has also been transferred to IMTC and is offered under the Apache 2.0 License.

What is in TIP

The TIP protocol specifications describe how to multiplex multiple screens, multiple audio streams, as well as an auxiliary-data screen into a single Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) flows, one each for video and audio. It enables point to point and multipoint sessions as well as a mix of multi-screen and single-screen endpoints.

The TIP protocol specification also defines how RTP Control Protocol (RTCP) – APP extensions are used to indicate profile capabilities and per media flow options as a session is established.  It also defines how devices can provide feedback and trigger resiliency mechanisms during the life of the streams.

Getting Started on a TIP Implementation

First, go to the IMTC web page for TIP. There you will find both version 6 and version 7 of the TIP protocol available under both evaluation and full implementation licenses from IMTC. IMTC will also be facilitating TIP product interoperability testing events and hosting ongoing discussions around enhancements or changes needed to TIP to help ensure multi-vendor success.

Second, consider using the TIP Library open source to kick start the integration of the TIP protocol in your device(s). Please consider joining the project to help make enhancements or code contributions towards supporting future versions of TIP.

Third, read through the Cisco TIP Implementation Profiles listed below. These profiles explain what options Cisco TelePresence devices can accept among those defined the TIP specification. Additional ancillary information needed to achieve interoperability is also included, such as what call control messaging is required and how to establish encrypted channels. These will be updated as needed for clarity or corrections and additional versions may be published from time to time as the Cisco TelePresence products evolve or as software releases enable new options.

To learn more about Cisco software releases and pass your Cisco exam: http://www.bestexampass.com

100 Pass Rate AWS-SYSOPS Questions & Answers PDF

Examguideview provides up to a time frame and personalized AWS-SYSOPS study material developed by experts that have the skills and knowledge in CISA exam. With our AWS-SYSOPS certification exam study material, you will see the concerns that were on the past AWS-SYSOPS exam. Our experts have collected all the past documents details as well as involved details from their study on improving and new manufacturers in the market.
Vendor:Amazon
Certifications:AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate
Exam Name:AWS Certified SysOps Administrator
Exam Code:AWS-SYSOPS
Total Questions:324 Q&As

Latest AWS-SYSOPS questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP
AWS-SYSOPS pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
AWS-SYSOPS exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel
AWS-SYSOPS exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router
AWS-SYSOPS pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False
AWS-SYSOPS pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring
AWS-SYSOPS pdf Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCIE 400-101 Dumps 100% Free Download

Examguideview best 400-101 dumps Cisco exam questions with pdf & vce on Videobash. Believe it or not, our efficient and authoritative 400-101 exam dumps materials are always here waiting for you to provide you with the best help of Cisco dumps exam preparation.

Vendor:Cisco
Certifications:CCIE
Exam Name:CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.0
Exam Code:400-101
Total Questions:149 Q&As

Latest 400-101 dumps exam questions and answers (7Q&As)

QUESTION 216
Study the diagram and answer the question below. What type of client GUI is shown in the diagram? A. Rule Base GUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Security Status GUI
D. Security SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 217
SmartUpdate is the primary tool used for upgrading Check Point gateways. When upgrading your gateway, what feature will you choose if want to upgrade all packages installed on your gateway?
A. Minimal Effort Upgrade
B. Add Package to Repository
C. Upgrading the Gateway
D. Upgrade All Packages
E. Zero Effort
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 218
The allowed Sources in the Location tab of the User Properties window specify that the user to A. Create an administrator account in place of the user account
B. Install your rule base
C. Re-create the user object
D. Select Allowed Destinations field in the Network Object Properties
E. Configure User Authentication Action Properties screen
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 219
What services are supported by client authentication?
A. All services
B. FTP
C. RLOGIN D. HTTP and FTP
E. TELNET, HTTP and FTP
F. HTTPS, HTTP and FTP
400-101 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 220
In what situation will you consider and deploy policy management conventions?
A. No available answer
B. In some situations
C. In some rear situations
D. In all situations
E. Not in any situation
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 221
On the Anti-Spam & Mail tab of the SmartDashboard, you can configure which of the following: ActualTests.com
A. Select gateways that enforce Anti-Virus checking
B. Enable automatic updates
C. View settings and logs
D. Select gateways that enforce Anti-Spam protection
E. View alerts
400-101 exam Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 222
Which of the following is true of Symmetric Encryption?
A. Both communicating parties using Symmetric Encryption use different keys for encryption and decryption
B. The material used to build these keys must be exchanged in a secure manner
C. Both communicating parties using Symmetric Encryption use the same key for encryption and decryption
D. The material used to build these keys does not have to be exchanged in a secure manner
E. Information can be securely exchanged only if the key belongs exclusively to the communicating parties
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BCE

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How to Prepare For Cisco CCDP 300-320 Exam

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Latest 300-320 exam questions and answers (16Q&As)

QUESTION 85
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3.)
A. Usedejitter buffers
B. Increase bandwidth
C. Fragment data packets
D. Prioritize voice packets Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 86
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3.)
A. Data link
B. IP
C. UDP
D. RTP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
B. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384-32,767 to transport voice payloads
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow
D. RTCP caches an RTP packet’s Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets. Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 88
Which two of the following VoIP gateway platforms are considered to be Integrated Services Routers (ISRs)? (Choose 2.)
A. Cisco 2600XM Series
B. Cisco 2800 Series
C. Cisco 3700 Series
D. Cisco 3800 Series Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 89
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, what is the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster?
A. 2500
B. 7500
C. 10,000
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 90
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to provide basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. AAR
B. SRST
C. CAC D. V3PN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 91
Which option cannot be configured using Cisco Configuration Assistant?
A. voice VLAN only
B. voice and data VLANs
C. script selection for theAutoAttendant
D. SIP trunk to an ITSP Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 92
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models?
A. Single site
B. Multisite with centralized call processing
C. Clustering over the IP WAN
D. Multisite with distributed call processing Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 93
Identify two gateway supplementary services. (Choose 2.)
A. Hold
B. DTMF relay
C. Transfer
D. Transcoding b Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 94
According to the G.114 recommendation, the maximum one-way delay for voice should ideally not exceed how much delay?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 95
did not have question?!?!?!?!
A. national destination code
B. station code
C. country code
D. subscriber number
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 96
Identify the preferred voice quality measurement approach for VoIP networks.
A. MOS
B. PESQ
C. QRT
D. PSQM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 97
Which method of fax relay uses a store-and-forward approach?
A. T.30
B. T.37
C. T.38
D. Cisco Fax Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 98
What codec is required for fax pass-through and/or modem pass-through?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. G.729ab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 99
Identify three quality issues that can result because of a lack of network bandwidth. (Choose 3.)
A. Jitter
B. Impedance
C. Delay
D. Packet loss Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 100
What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D

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In order to enhance your career value, it’s right to get 200-155 certification. We devise Examguideview 210-060 dumps pdf containing various questions in a way that could help you ace the 210-060 exam without any other books or materials. Our 210-060 pdf could be the lighthouse in your career life because it includes everything required to pass 210-060 exam.

Latest most accurate 210-060 dumps pdf questions and answers (17Q&As)

QUESTION 24
What must a system administrator do to reconcile BlackBerry devices with email messages that have been permanently deleted from Microsoft Outlook? (Choose one.)
A. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Enterprise Server properties.
B. Enable the hard delete feature in the BlackBerry Domain properties.
C. Create a new group, add BlackBerry device users to the group, and enable the hard delete option for the group.
D. Change the IT policy for the hard delete option and apply the IT policy to the all users.
E. Use the BlackBerry Resource Kit to apply the hard delete option to all users. 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A custom application has been developed for a group of BlackBerry device users. The organizations management staff require that all users in the group have the custom application installed on their BlackBerry devices. Which method can the system administrator use to prevent the custom application from being uninstalled by users? (Choose one.)
A. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Required.
B. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Optional.
C. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, the Disposition of the custom application is set to Disallowed.
D. In the Application Control Policy of the software configuration, an allow list or white list for third-party application control is created.
E. The custom application is signed by Research In Motion Limited so that the application is part of the system software. 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A system administrator has been assigned the task of moving the physical BlackBerry Enterprise Servers into a virtual machine environment. Which virtual machine software is recommended for use with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Server 2005
B. VMware ESX Server 2.5.2
C. Microsoft Virtual PC 2007
D. VMware GSX Server 3.2.1
E. VMware ESX Server 3i 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which type of confirmation does the Message Receipt Confirmation tool in the BlackBerry Resource Kit monitor? (Choose one.)
A. Email messages to a BlackBerry device
B. PIN messages to a BlackBerry device
C. SMS messages to a BlackBerry device
D. Unread status for email messages sent to a BlackBerry device
E. Message receipts for all email messages sent to a BlackBerry device 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two delivery methods are available to push applications to a BlackBerry device using a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless
B. Wireline only
C. Wi-Fi
D. BlackBerry device user initiated download
E. BlackBerry MDS Push Server 210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A company does not want their BlackBerry device users to be able to send PIN messages outside of their company. Which option in the BlackBerry Manager can be used to prevent PIN message communication outside of the company? (Choose one.)
A. Enable Enterprise Service Policy
B. Update Peer-to-Peer Encryption Key
C. Import IT Policy Definitions
D. Disable the BlackBerry MDS Connection Service
E. Disable message redirection 210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
The database administrator for the BlackBerry Configuration Database has advised the system administrator that the Microsoft SQL Server was shut down for maintenance the previous night for approximately two hours. In the application log, from which three BlackBerry Enterprise Server components would the system administrator expect to see warnings when the connection to the Microsoft SQL Server was lost? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Router
B. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
C. BlackBerry Policy Service
D. BlackBerry Controller
E. BlackBerry MDS Connection Service 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 31
A BlackBerry device is activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, allowing the BlackBerry device user to send and receive email messages and wirelessly update organizer (PIM) data synchronization control. The user wants to synchronize the address book on the BlackBerry device with a new contact that has recently been created in a personal .pst folder file. What must be done before the user can successfully synchronize the BlackBerry device and the new address book? (Choose one.)
A. The new address book must be assigned to the user in the BlackBerry Manager.
B. The user can synchronize the BlackBerry device to a .pst file in the BlackBerry Manager.
C. Wireless synchronization for the address book must be disabled on the BlackBerry device, and then, the BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. The user must disable the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book feature must be selected for synchronization in the BlackBerry Manager.
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and the address book must be selected for synchronization. 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
What can be configured for the BlackBerry Controller Service in the Microsoft Windows Registry? (Choose one.)
A. Daily restart of the BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. The number of hung threads
C. The wait count of hung threads
D. Maximum number of BlackBerry Messaging Agents
E. BlackBerry Controller Service enabled 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
How many remote components from a BlackBerry Enterprise Server installation can be installed on the same computer? (Choose one.)
210-060 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When planning for disaster recovery, what are the two minimum version requirements to support replication of the BlackBerry Configuration Database? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.0 Service Pack 4
B. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 2
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server Version 4.1 Service Pack 4
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Service Pack 4 or later 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 35
A system administrator is installing the first BlackBerry Enterprise Server in an environment. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server will be installed on a member server that does not have a Microsoft Exchange Server and the BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account will be named BESAdmin. Which two tasks must be performed in the Microsoft Exchange Server environment prior to installing the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the server on which the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software will be installed has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
B. Verify that the Microsoft Exchange Server that the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will connect to has the recommended Microsoft Exchange administration tools.
C. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Send As, and Receive As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
D. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server.
E. Verify that the Exchange View Only Administrator role has been assigned to BESAdmin and that the Administer Information Store, Write Properties, and Send As permissions have been set to Allow on the Microsoft Exchange Server. 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 36
Given the following example of a BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file: Which logging level has been set for this BlackBerry Enterprise Server component? (Choose one.)
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
The following line appears in the BlackBerry Dispatcher logs from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server:
[30222] (06/12 23:59:39):{0xFE4} {Smith, Donna} MTH: contentType=IPPP, sizeOTA=1228, sizeOTW=2096, TransactionId=201199664, Tag=9979374
Which action is being performed? (Choose one.)
A. An Internet request packet is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
B. An Internet request packet is being received from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. An email message is being sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. An email message is being received from the BlackBerry device through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
E. An attachment request packet is being sent from the BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. 210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A system administrator has moved the BlackBerry Configuration Database from one Microsof SQL Server to another. The Microsoft SQL database was backed up from the source server and restored on the destination server. The system administrator restores the BlackBerry Configuration Database on the destination Microsoft SQL Server and configures the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to point to the new Microsoft SQL Server using the BlackBerry Config tool. The BlackBerry Dispatcher, the BlackBerry Synchronization Service, and the BlackBerry Policy Service all fail to start. The system administrator has verified connectivity to the destination Microsoft SQL Server by clicking the Test Microsoft SQL Server Connectivity button. What is the most likely cause of this problem? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account is not a member of the local administrators group on the Microsoft SQL Server.
B. The BlackBerry Configuration Database schema is not updated.
C. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server service account does not have sufficient Microsoft Exchange permissions.
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is pointed at the wrong database.
E. The BlackBerry system errors (syserrors) are not updated in the master database.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 39
At what level in the BlackBerry Manager are IT policies created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. User
C. Group
D. Domain
E. Device 210-060 exam Correct Answer: QUESTION 40
A system administrator wants to create a software configuration that prohibits installation of all third-party applications with the exception of a short list of approved applications. Which two options require the shortest steps to achieve the desired result? (Choose two.)
A. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
B. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
C. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted.
D. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Disallowed. Assign this policy to each application that will be prohibited.
E. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Optional. Assign this policy to the Application Software level in the software configuration. Create a policy and set the Disposition field to Required. Assign this policy to each application that will be permitted. 210-060 pdf Correct Answer: AC

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Latest 1Z0-062 pdf questions and answers (15Q&As)

QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
1Z0-062 exam Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
1Z0-062 exam Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
1Z0-062 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
1Z0-062 pdf Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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Latest 300-115 pdf study guide questions and answers (12Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-115 PDF Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 300-135  dumps that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C

Question: 5
Which is a valid technique for preventing unauthorized users from triggering a process flow?
A. lock down all process flows using transport specific security mechanisms
B. lock down the Starter activity at the transport level via transport specific security
C. supply a User ID and password when logging into a BusinessWorks Process Engine
D. prevent each BusinessWorks process flow from unauthorized access by assigning a role to it
300-115 pdf Answer: B

Question: 6
Your organization has created a standard for organizing TIBCO BusinessWorks projects. Which
is most suited to this task?
A. TIBCO Adapters
B. TIBCO PortalBuilder
C. TIBCO Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Designer templates
Answer: D

Question: 7
Which two messaging protocols can be used to communicate between a BusinessWorks process
and a TIBCO Adapter? (Choose two.)
A. SOAP
B. RosettaNet
C. Rendezvous
D. Message Queues
E. Java Message Service
300-115 pdf Answer: C, E

Question: 8
Which statement is true about JRE requirements for installing TIBCO BusinessWorks
components?
A. A JRE must be installed prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
B. No JRE is needed or used during the installation of TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
C. All installed JREs must be uninstalled prior to installing TIBCO BusinessWorks components.
D. All TIBCO BusinessWorks component installers can use a preinstalled JRE or its own
embedded JVM.
Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
300-115 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 12
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E

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