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Q1. – (Topic 2)

A user has created a VPC with CIDR The user has created a public subnet with CIDR The user is trying to create the private subnet with CIDR Which of the below mentioned statements is true in this scenario?

A. It will not allow the user to create the private subnet due to a CIDR overlap

B. It will allow the user to create a private subnet with CIDR as

C. This statement is wrong as AWS does not allow CIDR

D. It will not allow the user to create a private subnet due to a wrong CIDR range

Answer: B


When the user creates a subnet in VPC, he specifies the CIDR block for the subnet. The CIDR block of a subnet can be the same as the CIDR block for the VPC (for a single subnet in the VPC., or a subset (to enable multiple subnets.. If the user creates more than one subnet in a VPC, the CIDR blocks of the subnets must not overlap. Thus, in this case the user has created a VPC with the CIDR block, which supports 256 IP addresses ( to The user can break this CIDR block into two subnets, each supporting 128 IP addresses. One subnet uses the CIDR block (for addresses – and the other uses the CIDR block (for addresses –

Q2. – (Topic 3)

A sys admin is using server side encryption with AWS S3. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand the S3 encryption functionality?

A. The server side encryption with the user supplied key works when versioning is enabled

B. The user can use the AWS console, SDK and APIs to encrypt or decrypt the content for server side encryption with the user supplied key

C. The user must send an AES-128 encrypted key

D. The user can upload his own encryption key to the S3 console

Answer: A


AWS S3 supports client side or server side encryption to encrypt all data at rest. The server side encryption can either have the S3 supplied AES-256 encryption key or the user can send the key along with each API call to supply his own encryption key. The encryption with the user supplied key (SSE-C. does not work with the AWS console. The S3 does not store the keys and the user has to send a key with each request. The SSE-C works when the user has enabled versioning.

Q3. – (Topic 3)

A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling terminate process only for a while. What will happen to the availability zone rebalancing process (AZRebalance. during this period?

A. Auto Scaling will not launch or terminate any instances

B. Auto Scaling will allow the instances to grow more than the maximum size

C. Auto Scaling will keep launching instances till the maximum instance size

D. It is not possible to suspend the terminate process while keeping the launch active

Answer: B


Auto Scaling performs various processes, such as Launch, Terminate, Availability Zone Rebalance (AZRebalance. etc. The AZRebalance process type seeks to maintain a balanced number of instances across Availability Zones within a region. If the user suspends the Terminate process, the AZRebalance process can cause the Auto Scaling group to grow up to ten percent larger than the maximum size. This is because Auto Scaling allows groups to temporarily grow larger than the maximum size during rebalancing activities. If Auto Scaling cannot terminate instances, the Auto Scaling group could remain up to ten percent larger than the maximum size until the user resumes the Terminate process type.


Q4. – (Topic 3)

A user has configured an HTTPS listener on an ELB. The user has not configured any security policy which can help to negotiate SSL between the client and ELB. What will ELB do in this scenario?

A. By default ELB will select the first version of the security policy

B. By default ELB will select the latest version of the policy

C. ELB creation will fail without a security policy

D. It is not required to have a security policy since SSL is already installed

Answer: B


Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and the load balancer. If the user has created an HTTPS/SSL listener without associating any security policy, Elastic Load Balancing will, bydefault, associate the latest version of the ELBSecurityPolicy-YYYY-MM with the load balancer.

Q5. – (Topic 3)

The compliance department within your multi-national organization requires that all data for your customers that reside in the European Union (EU) must not leave the EU and also

data for customers that reside in the US must not leave the US without explicit authorization.

What must you do to comply with this requirement for a web based profile management application running on EC2?

A. Run EC2 instances in multiple AWS Availability Zones in single Region and leverage an Elastic Load Balancer with session stickiness to route traffic to the appropriate zone to create their profile

B. Run EC2 instances in multiple Regions and leverage Route 53’s Latency Based Routing capabilities to route traffic to the appropriate region to create their profile

C. Run EC2 instances in multiple Regions and leverage a third party data provider to determine if a user needs to be redirect to the appropriate region to create their profile

D. Run EC2 instances in multiple AWS Availability Zones in a single Region and leverage a third party data provider to determine if a user needs to be redirect to the appropriate zone to create their profile

Answer: C

Q6. – (Topic 3)

A user has two EC2 instances running in two separate regions. The user is running an internal memory

management tool, which captures the data and sends it to CloudWatch in US East, using a CLI with the same namespace and metric. Which of the below mentioned options is true with respect to the above statement?

A. The setup will not work as CloudWatch cannot receive data across regions

B. CloudWatch will receive and aggregate the data based on the namespace and metric

C. CloudWatch will give an error since the data will conflict due to two sources

D. CloudWatch will take the data of the server, which sends the data first

Answer: B


Amazon CloudWatch does not differentiate the source of a metric when receiving custom data. If the user is publishing a metric with the same namespace and dimensions from different sources, CloudWatch will treat them as a single metric. If the data is coming with the same timezone within a minute, CloudWatch will aggregate the data. It treats these as a single metric, allowing the user to get the statistics, such as minimum, maximum, average, and the sum of all across all servers.

Q7. – (Topic 1)

What is a placement group?

A. A collection of Auto Scaling groups in the same Region

B. Feature that enables EC2 instances to interact with each other via nigh bandwidth, low latency connections

C. A collection of Elastic Load Balancers in the same Region or Availability Zone

D. A collection of authorized Cloud Front edge locations for a distribution

Answer: B

Q8. – (Topic 2)

An organization has added 3 of his AWS accounts to consolidated billing. One of the AWS accounts has

purchased a Reserved Instance (RI. of a small instance size in the US-East-1a zone. All other AWS accounts are running instances of a small size in the same zone. What will happen in this case for the RI pricing?

A. Only the account that has purchased the RI will get the advantage of RI pricing

B. One instance of a small size and running in the US-East-1a zone of each AWS account will get the benefit of RI pricing

C. Any single instance from all the three accounts can get the benefit of AWS RI pricing if they are running in the same zone and are of the same size

D. If there are more than one instances of a small size running across multiple accounts in the same zone no one will get the benefit of RI

Answer: C


AWS consolidated billing enables the organization to consolidate payments for multiple Amazon Web Services (AWS. accounts within a single organization by making a single paying account. For billing purposes, consolidated billing treats all the accounts on the consolidated bill as one account. This means that all accounts on a consolidated bill can receive the hourly cost benefit of the Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances purchased by any other account. In this case only one Reserved Instance has been purchased by one account. Thus, only a single instance from any of the accounts will get the advantage of RI. AWS will implement the blended rate for each instance if more than one instance is running concurrently.

Q9. – (Topic 2)

A user has configured the Auto Scaling group with the minimum capacity as 3 and the maximum capacity as 5. When the user configures the AS group, how many instances will Auto Scaling launch?

A. 3

B. 0

C. 5

D. 2

Answer: C

Q10. – (Topic 3)

A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. Which of the below mentioned statements is not true in this scenario?

A. The VPC will create a routing instance and attach it with a public subnet

B. The VPC will create two subnets

C. The VPC will create one internet gateway and attach it to VPC

D. The VPC will launch one NAT instance with an elastic IP

Answer: A


A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has created a public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic directly from the internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are created with Wizard, AWS will create a NAT instance with an elastic IP. Wizard will also create two subnets with route tables. It will also create an internet gateway and attach it to the VPC.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: A,D,E

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, 200-125 dumps using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
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Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.
Correct Answer: A,D

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. 200-125 dumps What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

Refer to exhibit:
200-125 dumps
Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: C,F

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use the smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

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